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One thing I never understand with cries of biased officiating, in any sport.  And that is, if it was biased, why was that call in particular the one that was bent?
Versus Slovenia, why didn't the referee blow the whistle on the other two goals, to keep the Americans from tying it up?  Was it because the ref just couldn't stand the thought of the Americans winning?  Because he apparently could stomach a draw.  Or why didn't he make some random call to give the Slovenians a penalty kick or free kick, give them another crack at scoring? 
Of course, maybe the Slovenian mob got to him and told him, whatever you do, the Americans can't win.  Sure, that's a possibility.  But if I'm a ref, and my daughter loses a finger if I let the American's win, I'd make some extra blown calls to make sure it wasn't too close.
Side note:  If this particular ref was biased, where are the other horribly Anti-American calls?  Did he make some horribly anti-Slovenian calls too?  Because if he did, then more likely he's just a bad ref.
The timing of this particular call is the one thing that I think conspiracty theorists have going for them.  That towards the end of the game, the guy made sure the Americans didn't win it.
But that's hardly proof of any conspiracy.  Circumstantial evidence at best.